Just to address an interesting (and almost depressing) TYS question raised
D01Q20
This is one weird question that will not make sense unless you know the background of it - yet has never been taught - one of those funny questions that Cambridge throw.
Thus, despite the intro of the question, BRCA 1 can be carried by the male without the manifestation of the disease. Why? Because while it is NOT sex-linked, the allele regulate production of estrogen and progestrone (http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2006/01/060126192801.htm) which are found in typically high amounts in the females, as normal chemical constituents. Thus a reduction in their production will affect the female compared to the males who already have low amount of the hormones. =)
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